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I had an MRI, got the report today, and I understand most of it, but not all. I go to the doctor tomorrow, so this is just me being impatient, but I'm curious if anyone knows exactly what this means: "focal area of subchondral sclerosis and adjacent osteoedema seen within anterior aspect of lateral femoral condyle." yet "cartilage overlying femoral condyles appears within normal limits."

I take that subchondral sclerosis is some kind of hardening or thickening under the cartilage, and osteoedema is swelling? Is it fluid? Bone swelling? Anyway, the cartilage is okay, but the bone under it is irritated? How does that happen?